Pilot medical certificate guide — EASA & FAA
A factual reference to pilot medical certification: EASA Class 1, Class 2, and LAPL requirements, validity periods, AeMC vs AME, revalidation vs renewal, mental health and peer support rules, and an FAA certificate comparison. Every figure on this page is sourced directly from the regulation cited beside it — see "Sources" at the end.
Commercial and airline pilots need a Class 1 medical certificate, issued initially only by an AeMC (Class 1 revalidations and renewals can be done by an AME). Class 1 is valid 12 months. That drops to 6 months if either: you're flying single-pilot commercial air transport carrying passengers and have reached 40, or you've reached age 60 — the second trigger applies to every Class 1 holder, multi-crew airline pilots included. You can revalidate up to 45 days before expiry with no loss of validity; miss that window and you need a renewal instead, which can require extra assessment if your certificate lapsed more than 2 years. A comprehensive mental health assessment is mandatory at your initial Class 1 exam, and separately, your airline must give you access to a peer support programme. Wearing glasses, contact lenses, or having had LASIK/PRK does not disqualify you — neither EASA nor the FAA limits uncorrected vision, only whether it corrects to standard; around 55% of US civilian pilots use some form of vision correction. Colour deficiency isn't an automatic fail either — failing the initial Ishihara test leads to further testing, not instant unfitness. FAA-licensed pilots need a First-Class certificate for ATP pilot-in-command privileges.
Medical certificate classes
EASA Part-MED defines three certificate classes. A higher class always includes the privileges and validity structure of the classes below it — a Class 1 holder never needs a separate Class 2 or LAPL certificate.
Class 1 medical certificate
Required to exercise the privileges of a CPL, MPL, or ATPL — i.e. any commercial pilot or airline pilot role.
Initial examination: AeMC (Aero-medical Centre) only. Revalidation or renewal: AeMC or an AME (Aviation Medical Examiner) holding Class 1 revalidation/renewal privileges.
Standard validity is 12 months. It drops to 6 months if either of two conditions applies: (a) the holder is flying single-pilot commercial air transport operations carrying passengers and has reached age 40, or (b) the holder has reached age 60 — this second trigger applies to every Class 1 holder regardless of single-pilot or multi-crew operations.
Class 2 medical certificate
Required to exercise the privileges of a PPL (Private Pilot Licence). A Class 1 certificate automatically includes Class 2 privileges.
AeMC or AME.
60 months until age 40 (a certificate issued before age 40 ceases to be valid once the holder turns 42); 24 months between ages 40–50 (a certificate issued before age 50 ceases to be valid once the holder turns 51); 12 months above age 50.
LAPL medical certificate
Required to exercise the privileges of a Light Aircraft Pilot Licence (LAPL). A Class 1 or Class 2 certificate automatically includes LAPL privileges.
AeMC or AME. In some EASA member states a GMP (General Medical Practitioner) may also issue an LAPL medical, subject to national rules.
60 months until age 40 (a certificate issued before age 40 ceases to be valid once the holder turns 42); 24 months for licence holders above age 40. Unlike Class 2, LAPL validity has only these two tiers — it does not step down again at age 50.
The examination process
The same general sequence applies whether you're booking an initial Class 1 or a routine renewal — only the depth of testing and who can perform it changes.
Revalidation vs. renewal
These two terms are not interchangeable under EASA rules, and the distinction has real consequences for your validity period.
Mental health, peer support & substance testing
Both rules below followed the Germanwings Flight 9525 accident, but they are two distinct regulatory layers, run by two different parties — a distinction that's frequently blurred online.
Since Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/27 amended Part-MED, a comprehensive mental health assessment is a mandatory part of every initial Class 1 aero-medical examination, conducted by the AeMC. It covers psychiatric history, substance use/misuse, and specific criteria such as a documented history of self-harm or suicide attempts, which require satisfactory psychiatric evaluation before a fit assessment can be given.
Commission Regulation (EU) 2018/1042 (consolidated into 2020/745) requires every commercial air transport operator — not the AeMC — to carry out its own pre-employment psychological assessment of flight crew before line flying begins, to give pilots access to a support programme (typically a peer-support programme, or PSP), and to maintain a policy on prevention and detection of psychoactive substance misuse, including systematic testing.
Limitation codes
Not meeting a standard outright doesn't always mean an unconditional "unfit." A certificate can instead carry an operational limitation. These are the general-purpose codes defined in AMC2 MED.B.001 of Part-MED (vision-specific codes are covered separately below):
Glasses, contact lenses, corrective surgery & colour vision — the eyesight myths
One of the most persistent misconceptions about becoming a pilot is that you need naturally perfect eyesight. You don't. The FAA's own pilot safety brochure states plainly that about 55% of US civilian pilots use some form of refractive correction to meet medical certification standards. Neither EASA nor the FAA places any limit on uncorrected vision — an official EASA decision on the matter is explicit that "no limits apply to uncorrected visual acuity." What both regulators care about is whether your vision, corrected with glasses, contact lenses, or after surgery, meets the required standard.
| Certificate | Distant vision | Near vision |
|---|---|---|
| EASA Class 1 | 6/9 or better in each eye separately, with or without correction; 6/6 or better with both eyes together | N5 (30–50cm) and N14 (100cm), with correction if needed |
| EASA Class 2 | 6/12 or better in each eye separately, with or without correction; 6/9 or better with both eyes together | N5 and N14, with correction if needed |
| FAA First/Second-Class | 20/20 or better in each eye separately, with or without correction | 20/40 at 16 inches; also tested at 32 inches if age 50+ |
| FAA Third-Class | 20/40 or better in each eye separately, with or without correction | 20/40 at 16 inches |
All figures with or without correction — meeting the standard with glasses, contact lenses, or post-surgery counts the same as meeting it naturally.
EASA guidance recommends contact lenses (or high-index spectacle lenses) for applicants whose refractive error is large — specifically where hypermetropia (long-sightedness) exceeds +5.00 dioptres or anisometropia (the difference in prescription between the two eyes) exceeds 3.00 dioptres. This isn't a disqualifying threshold — it's a recommendation for which correction method works best at that level of prescription. Orthokeratological (OrthoK) lenses are not permitted for flying under EASA rules.
EASA: immediately after refractive surgery you must not exercise your licence privileges, and you must inform your AME, who assesses you as unfit pending recovery. Once your surgeon confirms vision and refraction are stable with no significant complications, Class 1 and Class 3 applicants are reassessed at an AeMC; Class 2 applicants may be assessed by their AME. A degree of monovision (one eye corrected for distance, one for near) may be permitted after surgery, subject to no adverse effects and glasses being available that restore full correction in both eyes if needed.
FAA: the FAA accepts FDA-approved refractive procedures including PRK and LASIK. You must stop exercising airman privileges until your eye care specialist confirms your vision has stabilised with no significant adverse effects (glare, halos, impaired night vision), and the appropriate vision standard is met. This is reported to your AME or the FAA directly. Pilots who choose monovision LASIK must initially fly with near-vision correction, and after a 6-month adaptation period may apply for a Statement of Demonstrated Ability (SODA) with a medical flight test to have the correction requirement removed from their certificate.
Colour deficiency is another condition people assume is an automatic disqualifier. It isn't, and the actual process has several steps before any restriction is applied. Every applicant takes the Ishihara test at initial issue (the 24-plate version; passing means correctly reading the first 15 plates, shown in random order, without error).
Fail the Ishihara, and you don't go straight to "unfit" — you're offered further testing: an anomaloscope (passed if the colour match is trichromatic within a defined range), a colour lantern test (Spectrolux, Beynes, or Holmes-Wright — passed with no errors), or the modern CAD (Colour Assessment and Diagnosis) test, which sets numeric pass thresholds for deutan and protan colour deficiency.
Where it differs by class: Class 1 applicants must ultimately be a normal trichromat or otherwise "colour safe" (able to reliably identify aviation light colours) — there's no day-only fallback at Class 1. Class 2 and LAPL applicants who don't pass further testing aren't necessarily unfit either: they can be issued a VCL limitation — valid by day only — since colour cues from aviation lighting matter far less in daylight.
If your certificate needs a vision-related condition recorded, it appears as one of these standard codes rather than a vague "fail." Sourced directly from EASA's AMC2 MED.B.001 and the UK CAA's own guidance on visual limitation codes:
FAA certificate classes — comparison
For pilots targeting US-registered operators: the FAA uses a First/Second/Third-Class structure under 14 CFR Part 67, with validity governed by 14 CFR 61.23(d). The table below reproduces that table directly.
| Certificate | Age at exam | Operation requiring it | Expires |
|---|---|---|---|
| First-class medical certificate | Under 40 at exam | ATP — pilot-in-command privileges, or second-in-command in a flag/supplemental Part 121 operation requiring 3+ pilots | 12th month after the month of examination |
| First-class medical certificate | 40 or older at exam | Same ATP privileges as above, or any Part 121 flightcrew duty once the pilot has reached age 60 | 6th month after the month of examination |
| First-class medical certificate | Any age | Commercial pilot certificate, flight engineer certificate, or ATC tower operator certificate | 12th month after the month of examination |
| Second-class medical certificate | Any age | Commercial pilot certificate, or ATP second-in-command (outside the operations above) | 12th month after the month of examination |
Second- and Third-Class certificates also have separate, longer validity periods for private/recreational/student privileges — see the full table at the official source linked below.
Obesity, BMI and metabolic standards
Rising global obesity rates have pushed regulators to be more explicit about how body weight is assessed at the medical. ICAO's baseline framework doesn't set a number — Annex 1, Chapter 6 only notes that predisposing factors for disease, including obesity and smoking, may be relevant when deciding whether further evaluation is needed — but EASA, the UK CAA, and the FAA have each built their own specific approach on top of that, and they don't all work the same way.
Both EASA (AMC1/AMC2 MED.B.025(b)) and the UK CAA apply the same acceptable means of compliance: applicants with a BMI of 35 or above may only be assessed as fit if the excess weight is unlikely to interfere with safe exercise of the licence, and the results of a risk assessment — including a cardiovascular evaluation and a check for the possibility of sleep apnoea — are satisfactory. This applies identically to Class 1 and Class 2. Crucially, it isn't an automatic fail: BMI 35 is the trigger for a closer look, not a disqualifying number on its own.
The UK CAA has published a detailed operational protocol on top of the BMI 35 trigger. Initial applicants with a BMI of 35 or above undergo further assessment before a certificate is issued; existing certificate holders whose BMI crosses 35 must be investigated within 2 months, and a TML limitation is normally applied if a certificate is issued.
That assessment covers medical history and lifestyle, BMI, waist and neck circumference, lipid profile, blood glucose, urinalysis, blood pressure, and an Epworth sleepiness score, plus a cardiovascular QRISK score — an annual exercise ECG is required if 10-year cardiovascular risk exceeds 10%, with cardiologist review if abnormal. A Medical Flight Test (or ATCO Functional Test) is also required above BMI 35, specifically to confirm the applicant can fully and freely reach all controls and switches and can evacuate the aircraft quickly in an emergency.
Follow-up continues at every periodic medical until BMI drops back under 35, and the flight/functional test must be repeated if BMI increases by 2.5 points or more since the last one.
The FAA actually proposed a hard BMI ≥ 40 grounding rule in 2013 and walked it back after significant pushback. The current protocol is explicit that airmen are not deferred from certification on the basis of BMI alone — a sleep apnea risk assessment is built into the standard exam using American Academy of Sleep Medicine risk criteria, with the examiner applying clinical judgement rather than a fixed number.
That's because BMI alone is a poor predictor either way: over 90% of people with a BMI of 40 or higher have clinically significant obstructive sleep apnea, but up to 30% of people with sleep apnea have a BMI under 30. The FAA instead triages every applicant into one of six risk groups based on BMI alongside neck circumference, treatment-resistant hypertension, diabetes, and atrial fibrillation. Most applicants are still issued a certificate the same day even when flagged, with further information requested within 90 days; only overtly safety-relevant symptoms trigger an immediate deferral.
This is the fastest-moving part of the picture, given how widely GLP-1 medications are now prescribed. One naming point worth knowing first: Mounjaro and Zepbound are the same drug, tirzepatide — Mounjaro is the brand name used for the type 2 diabetes indication, Zepbound for the weight-loss indication. Ozempic and Wegovy are likewise both semaglutide, branded by indication. Aviation authorities generally regulate by the active substance, not the brand name.
EASA / UK CAA: subcutaneous (injectable) GLP-1 and combined GIP/GLP-1 agonists used for obesity — covering semaglutide and tirzepatide — are compatible with all certificate classes (Class 1, 2, 3, and LAPL). Oral formulations are not currently compatible, due to variable absorption. On starting treatment, Class 1/2/LAPL holders must be unfit for at least 2 weeks before an AME confirms there are no impairing side effects (nausea, GI upset, and similar, which could theoretically worsen with cabin pressure changes); a dose increase requires a shorter 72-hour stand-down with no AME visit needed to resume flying.
FAA: metformin, liraglutide, semaglutide (Wegovy), and tirzepatide (Zepbound) are each acceptable as a single agent for weight loss under the FAA's CACI (Conditions an AME Can Issue) pathway, provided HbA1c is 6.4% or below with no diagnosis of diabetes and no history of hypoglycaemia requiring intervention — the AME can issue a certificate on the day of the exam without deferring to the FAA. The timing matches the UK closely: 2 weeks off flying after starting for weight loss, 72 hours after any dosage change. Combining two diabetic-medication components requires a Special Issuance instead, and older weight-loss drugs — phentermine and similar sympathomimetics, plus serotonin agonists like fenfluramine — remain unacceptable outright, with no Special Issuance route available.
Tattoos and visible body modifications
A question that comes up often enough to warrant its own section, precisely because it is not a medical certification matter. Tattoos don't appear anywhere in EASA Part-MED or the FAA's 14 CFR Part 67 — your Class 1, Class 2, or LAPL medical assesses physical and mental fitness to fly, and a tattoo has no bearing on any of that. No aviation authority regulates it, positively or negatively.
Whether a tattoo affects your career instead comes down entirely to individual airline grooming policy — the same category as uniform fit or facial hair rules. Policies vary enormously: some airlines have none at all, others require tattoos to stay covered while in uniform, and a smaller number still prohibit them for flight crew outright. Visibility while in uniform is the single biggest factor where a policy does exist — tattoos on the torso, upper arms, back or legs are far less likely to be restricted than ones on the face, neck, or hands, which are the locations most commonly singled out. Offensive, extremist, or discriminatory imagery is essentially universally prohibited regardless of placement.
Two things worth knowing if you're researching this: pilots and cabin crew at the same airline aren't necessarily covered by the same policy — most public reporting on airlines "relaxing" tattoo rules is actually about cabin crew, since they're more customer-facing. And we'd caution against relying on the "airline tattoo policy" comparison lists that circulate online — these routinely contradict each other on the same airline and are usually describing cabin crew standards rather than flight deck. The only reliable answer comes directly from that airline's recruitment team — ask before booking the appointment if you're weighing a new tattoo, not after.
FAQ
Sources
- EASA — Part-MED medical requirements for aircrew (overview)
- EASA — Easy Access Rules for Aircrew, Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011 (full Part-MED text, incl. MED.A.045 validity/revalidation/renewal)
- EASA — Easy Access Rules — AMC2 MED.B.001, full limitation code definitions
- EASA — Who can perform the Class 1 aero-medical examination? (official AeMC vs AME FAQ)
- EASA — Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/27 (comprehensive mental health assessment)
- EUR-Lex — full legal text of Regulation (EU) 2019/27
- EASA — Commission Regulation (EU) 2018/1042 (support programmes, psychological assessment, substance testing)
- EASA — Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2020/745 (amending 2018/1042)
- UK CAA — Revalidate or renew a medical certificate
- eCFR — 14 CFR § 61.23 — Medical certificates: requirement and duration (official FAA validity table)
- eCFR — 14 CFR Part 67 — Medical standards and certification
- eCFR — 14 CFR § 67.103 — Eye (First-Class vision standards)
- UK CAA — Vision Limitation Codes guidance (PDF)
- UK CAA — Guidance on the use of contact lenses
- UK CAA — Visual system guidance material (quotes MED.B.070 directly)
- UK CAA — Guidance following eye surgery
- FAA — Information for Pilots Considering Laser Eye Surgery (official FAA brochure)
- FAA — Guide for Aviation Medical Examiners — refractive surgery
- UK CAA — Obesity Information for Pilots and Air Traffic Controllers (PDF)
- UK CAA — Metabolic and endocrinology guidance material GM (EASA AMC1/AMC2 MED.B.025 obesity text, GLP-1 agonist guidance)
- EASA — Easy Access Rules for Medical Requirements (AMC1/AMC2 MED.B.025, Metabolic and endocrine systems)
- FAA — Guide for Aviation Medical Examiners — Obstructive Sleep Apnea (OSA) protocol
- FAA — Weight Loss Medication — pharmaceutical considerations (PDF)
- FAA — CACI — Weight Loss Management Worksheet (PDF)
For UAE (GCAA) medical requirements, see the EASA→GCAA section of our licence conversion guide.